Archive for August, 2009»
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1. In which color will the text Formatting with CSS be displayed in the browser?
A. red
B. blue
C. black
D. green
Answer: D
2. Which would NOT be a potential problem level that is detected by the Browser Compatibility Check in Dreamweaver?
A. errors
B. warnings
C. design issues
D. informational messages
Answer: C
3. You want to to create a report on whether a page complies with Section 508 standards?
A. select File > Validate > Markup
B. select File > Check Page > Browser Compatibility
C. select Site > Reports, choose Accessibility and click Run
D. select View > Code View Options > Syntax Error Alerts in Info Bar
Answer: C
4. Which reports are available within Dreamweaver HTML reports to assist you in Web site maintenance?
A. Accessibility, Untitled Documents, and Missing Alt Text
B. Broken Links, Missing Alt Text, and Untitled Documents
C. Missing Alt Text, Untitled Documents, and Orphaned Files
D. XHTML Validation, Browser Compatibility Check, and External Links
Answer:A
5. Which two categories of reporting are available in the Dreamweaver Site Reports interface? (Choose two.)
A. HTML Reports
B. Workflow Reports
C. Information Reports
D. Accessibility Reports
E. Browser Compatibility Reports
Answer:AB
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6. You have just become the Webmaster for a Web site you did NOT create. You want to locate and correct broken links within this website.
Where can you go within Dreamweaver to locate broken links and open each page so you can correct these issues?
A. use HTML Reports in the Site Reports tab of the Results panel
B. use Validation in the Results panel and choose Validate Entire Current Local Site
C. use Browser Compatibility in the Results panel and click Settings in the pop-up menu
D. use Link Checker in the Results panel and select Broken Links in the Show pop-up menu
Answer: D
7. Which are the three categories of files displayed by the Dreamweaver Link Checker?
A. Broken Links, External Links, and Invalid Links
B. Broken Links, External Links, and Missing Files
C. Broken Links, External Links, and Orphaned Files
D. Broken Links, External Links, and Unreachable Files
Answer: C
8. Which tool is required to create and deploy a Web site?
A. Web browser
B. Dreamweaver
C. production server
D. application server
Answer: D
9. Which is required when hosting a Web site on a publicly addressable production server?
A. FTP server
B. SSL certificate
C. Web server
D. Application server
Answer: C
10. Which product is required to enable users to play Flash video on a Web page without progressive downloading?
A. Flash Media Encoding Server
B. Flash Media Interactive Server
C. Flash Media Streaming Server
D. Flash Media Rights Management Server
Answer: C
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1.Which Avamar component(s) is/are checked as part of the de-duplication process?
A.Client and server
B.Client cache files only
C.Client only
D.Server only
Answer: A
2.A user has to restore a corrupted file. Which type of recovery satisfies this request?
A.Archival
B.Disaster
C.Operational
D.Regulatory
Answer: C
3.When restoring a server with EMC HomeBase, what must be done before the HomeBase base profile is applied?
A.Apply the extended profile
B.Install the backup application client
C.Install the OS on the target server
D.Restore the customer data
Answer: C
4.What is a component of an Avamar Group policy?
A.Backups
B.Clients
C.Datasets
D.Users
Answer: C
5.The EMC NetWorker client’s retention policy was increased from three to four years, without changing the browse policy.
What is the impact on newly created save sets?
A.Increases the time available for save set recoveries
B.Increases the time save sets are maintained in the client file index
C.Reduces the time available for save set recoveries
D.Reduces the time save sets are maintained in the client file index
Answer: A
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6.Which EMC NetWorker resource is used to specify the databases to be backed up?
A.Client
B.Directive
C.Group
D.Pool
Answer: A
7.Which log file is used to perform full debugging of the EMC HomeBase server?
A.console.log
B.error.log
C.package.log
D.server.log
Answer: D
8.Which EMC NetWorker module is designed specifically for backing up and recovering file systems containing many small files using NDMP?
A.PowerSnap
B.SnapImage
C.SnapSure
D.SnapView
Answer: B
9.Which EMC NetWorker operation allows the user to duplicate save sets?
A.Archiving
B.Cloning
C.Copying
D.Staging
Answer: D
10.What is an EMC NetWorker pool?
A.Collection of labeled volumes
B.Group of backup clients
C.Multiple save sets
D.Tape devices from multiple autochangers
Answer: B
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1.What is an EMC NetWorker pool?
A.Collection of labeled volumes
B.Group of backup clients
C.Multiple save sets
D.Tape devices from multiple autochangers
Answer: B
2.What is a benefit of using EMC NetWorker modules?
A.Allows backup of a database in use
B.Improves tape utilization ratio
C.Organizes data on the backup media for fast recovery
D.Performs cold database backups
Answer: A
3.Which type of EMC NetWorker backup automatically results in the backup of the client file index?
A.Client-initiated and server-initiated
B.Client-initiated only
C.Raw backups
D.Server-initiated only
Answer: D
4.Which EMC NetWorker option enables concurrent backup and recovery on the same device?
A.Advanced file type device
B.Automatic cloning
C.Save set streaming
D.SILO jukeboxes
Answer: C
5.What is a benefit of using the EMC NetWorker SnapImage module?
A.Allows block-level backups of file systems
B.Allows the backup of raw devices
C.Integrates with array remote replication technology
D.Integrates with array snapshot technology
Answer: A
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6.For operational backup, what helps to determine the retention period?
A.Backup type used
B.Percentage of restore requests over time
C.Recovery time objective
D.Tape media type used
Answer: B
7.What is a function of EMC NetWorker?
A.Enables failover to passive nodes
B.Enables failover to remote servers
C.Manages capacity of front end storage devices
D.Protects critical business data
Answer: C
8.How do EMC HomeBase recoveries differ from other bare metal recovery strategies?
A.Independent of a specific backup manager
B.Requires backup application data onsite before recovery can begin
C.Target hardware must be identical to the source server
D.Uses a different recovery tool for each platform type
Answer: A
9.When backing up a file server, the data change rate is very high. Which backup level would you recommend for daily backups?
A.Consolidated
B.Differential
C.Full
D.Incremental
Answer: C
10.What does an EMC HomeBase extended profile contain?
A.All attributes of the operating system required to recover or migrate the environment
B.Attributes and configuration from protected servers running on a platform different from the HomeBase server
C.Attributes required to re-establish the application environment on the recovery server
D.Replication attributes used when multiple protected sites are in place
Answer: C
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1. In the Paint panel, what does the Flow attribute affect?
A. the maximum amount of paint applied
B. how quickly paint is applied or removed
C. the ratio between the short and long axes of a brush
D. how pixels in the underlying image are blended with the pixels painted
Answer: B
2. You are interpolating between two keyframed mask shape paths by using the Smart Mask Interpolation panel.
Which option in the Smart Mask Interpolation panel lets you control how Smart Mask Interpolation matches vertices one keyframe to another keyframe?
A. Quality
B. Matching Method
C. First Vertices Match
D. Bending Resistance
E. Add Mask Shape Vertices
Answer:A
3. How can you find out the number vertices of a mask?
A. select the mask in the timeline and look in the Info panel
B. select the mask in the timeline, open the Mask properties and look under Mask Path
C. select the mask in the Composition panel, right-click on it, select Mask and select Vertices at the bottom of the menu
D. select the mask in the Composition panel, go to Layer > Mask > Mask Shape to bring up the Mask Shape dialog box containing the vertices information
Answer:A
4. You have applied Motion Blur to an animating mask shape.
Which option lets you control the amount of blurring to the mask as it animates?
A. Mask Feather
B. Mask Expansion
C. Layer > Masks > Motion Blur
D. Composition Settings > Advanced > Shutter Angle
E. Composition Settings > Advanced > Shutter Phase
Answer: D
5. What should you do to apply permanent motion blur to a mask?
A. select the mask, then choose Layer > Mask > Motion Blur > On
B. select the mask, then choose Layer > Mask > Motion Blur > Same As Layer
C. select the mask, then click the Motion Blur switch for the layer in the timeline
D. select the mask, then click the Composition Motion Blur switch in the timeline
Answer:A
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6. When pasting a mask path from an After Effects layer into the Position property for an object in the Timeline panel,the size of the resulting motion path needs to be a different size than the original mask path.
Which action lets you resize the motion path?
A. apply the Free Transform Points command to the position keyframes
B. convert the roving keyframes created when pasting the path to the Position property into Bezier keyframes
C. resize the mask path in a solid layer the size of the composition before pasting the path into the Position property
D. set the Display > Motion Path section of After Effects Preferences to show all keyframes before pasting the path into the Position property
Answer: C
7. When working in an After Effects Composition panel, you need to lock the current composition viewer, split the current frame, and create a new composition viewer in the frame.
Which action performs this function in the Composition panel?
A. choose Maximize Frame from the Composition panel menu
B. press Ctrl+Alt+Shift+N (Windows) or Command+Option+Shift+N (Mac OS) on the keyboard
C. lock the Composition panel and choose Maximize Frame from the Composition panel menu
D. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) drag the gripper area in the upper-left corner of the Composition panel into the center of the work area
E. Ctrl (Windows) or Command (Mac OS) drag the group gripper in the upper-right corner of the Composition panel into the center of the work area
Answer: B
8. When previewing an After Effects composition that contains several nested compositions, a Timeline panel different from the current Composition panel plays.
What is causing this scenario?
A. The Timeline panel is locked.
B. The Composition panel is locked.
C. The Maximize Frame command has been enabled for the Timeline panel.
D. The Maximize Frame command has been enabled for the Composition panel.
E. You have selected a nested composition in the Timeline panel with the mouse before previewing.
Answer: B
9. Which tool lets you change the point from which transformations happen to a layer in the Composition panel,without changing the layer’s appearance or position?
A. Selection tool
B. Puppet Pin tool
C. Pan Behind tool
D. Convert Vertex tool
E. Unified Camera tool
Answer: C
10. Which action lets you motion sketch an animation with the Puppet Pin tool?
A. drag a Deform pin with the Puppet Pin tool
B. place Deform pins at different points in time in the Composition panel
C. place Puppet Overlap pins at different points in time in the Composition panel
D. drag a Deform pin with the Control key (Windows) or Command key (Mac OS)
E. drag a Puppet Overlap pin with the Control key (Windows) or Command key (Mac OS)
Answer: D
Test4actual Adobe 9A0-088 exam updated
Hello,everyone,Test4actual is the first to update the Adobe 9A0-088 exam,here are some practice about Adobe 9A0-088 exam,we hope we can help you pass your test.
1. While working on a document to be printed on an offset press you decide to print a composite proof to examine the results of color trapping manually done in the document.To accomplish this, you should choose which Overprint setting on the Advanced pane of the Print dialog?
A. Discard
B. Simulate
C. Preserve
D. Print as Bitmap
Answer: B
2. Which option must be turned on before you can turn off visibility of individual color plates in the Separation Preview panel?
A. Proof Colors
B. Pixel Preview
C. Isolation Mode
D. Overprint Preview
Answer: D
3. You create artwork that is to be restricted to two Pantone spot colors. When printed, you discover that there are objects using Cyan and Magenta in your document.How can you find these objects?
A. choose View > Edit Views
B. choose Edit > Find and Replace
C. deselect all objects, then choose Window > Appearance
D. choose Select > All, then choose Edit > Edit Colors > Adjust Color
E. select the Overprint Preview checkbox in the Separations Preview panel, then turn off visibility for the Pantone colors
Answer: E
4. You are preparing a PDF file for your printer. You want to include trim marks and a bleed value of 0.25 inches.
What should you do to prevent printer marks from being visible in the bleed area?
A. set the four bleed settings to a value above 0.25 inch
B. enter a value of 0.25 inch for the four bleed settings and the Offset setting
C. set the four bleed settings to 0.25 inch, then deselect the Trim Marks checkbox
D. select the Use Document Bleed Settings checkbox and deselect the Color Bars checkbox
Answer: B
5. To make it easier to print documents to the same device in the future you have decided to create a reusable print preset.
What should you do?
A. choose File > Print, set all options, then select Custom from the Print Preset popup menu
B. choose File > Print, set all options, click the disk icon in the upper right corner of the dialog box
C. choose File > Print, set all options, then Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Windows) the Print button
D. choose File > Print, set all options, click the Page Setup button in the lower left corner of the dialog box
Answer: B
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6. You are saving a PDF file and you want to protect it with a password.
In the Save Adobe PDF dialog box, what determines whether or not you can use High (128-bit RC4) encryption?
A. Color Conversion pop-up menu
B. Acrobat Compatibility pop-up menu
C. Compress Text and Line Art checkbox
D. Optimize for Fast Web View checkbox
Answer: B
7. You are saving a document as a PDF file. Your printer has instructed you to leave the transparency effects unflattened.
Which PDF standard should you choose?
A. PDF/X-1a:2001
B. PDF/X-3:2002
C. PDF/X-3:2003
D. PDF/X-4:2008
Answer: D
8. You want to create a new document in which you will lay out three same-sized 1/3-page newspaper ads.
After choosing File > New, which settings should you choose from the New Document dialog box?
A. choose Print from the New Document Profile list; enter 3 in the Number of Artboards field; specify the size,spacing, and bleed values in the fields provided and click OK
B. choose Basic RGB from the New Document Profile list; enter 3 in the Number of Artboards field; specify the size,spacing, and bleed values in the fields provided and click OK
C. choose Basic CMYK from the New Document Profile list; enter 3 in the Number of Artboards field; specify the size,spacing, and bleed values in the fields provided and click the Templates button
D. choose Web from the New Document Profile pop-up menu; enter 3 in the Number of Artboards field; specify the size, spacing in the fields provided, then click the Advanced button, then the Templates button
Answer: A
9. You want to save the current document setup as a document profile that you can use to create future documents.
What should you do?
A. choose File > New. You enter a name for the profile in the Name field and then click OK
B. make sure Document is selected in the Document Info panel flyout menu, and then choose Save from the panel menu; in the Save Selection Info As dialog box, enter a name for the profile in the Save As field and click Save
C. choose File > Save As; in the Save As dialog box, enter a name for the profile in the Save As field; choose Adobe Illustrator (ai) from the Format menu; browse to the New Document Profiles folder on your system and click Save
D. choose File > Save As Template; in the Save As dialog box, you enter a name for the profile in the Save As field;choose Illustrator Template (ait) from the Format menu; browse to the Templates folder on your system and click Save
Answer: C
10. You must add an additional Artboard that is 11″ x 17″ in your document. To accomplish this, you select the Artboard tool from the Tools panel.
What should you do next?
A. press Command-N (Mac OS) or Ctrl-N (Windows), choose Tabloid from the Size pop-up menu, and click OK
B. double-click in an empty part of the artboard, then choose Tabloid from the Presets pop-up menu in the Control panel
C. drag a rectangle in the document window, and then select Tabloid from the Presets pop-up menu in the Control panel
D. click the New Artboard button in the Control panel, and then select Tabloid from the Presets pop-up menu in the Control panel
Answer: C
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1. You want to create text along the edge of an oval frame that you’ve drawn with the Ellipse tool.
What should you do?
A. right+click (Ctrl+click with a one button mouse) the ellipse with the Type on a Path tool and choose Content >Text from the contextual menu
B. click the edge of the ellipse with the Type on a Path tool
C. double-click the edge of the ellipse with the Direct Selection tool
D. Shift+click the edge of the ellipse with the Type tool
Answer: B
2. You have created a new object style. In the Stroke pane of the New Object Style dialog box, you choose a 2-point red stroke. In the Paragraph Styles pane, you choose a paragraph style called “Heading”.
What happens when you select a graphic frame with a JPEG image in it and assign this object style?
A. The frame is converted to an empty text frame with a 2-point red stroke and the graphic is deleted.
B. The frame is converted to a text frame with a 2-point red stroke and the graphic is converted to an inline object.
C. The frame is assigned a 2-point red stroke and the graphic remains.
D. The frame remains the same and this object style is not applied.
Answer: C
3. You have a long story threaded across multiple columns on multiple pages. You want to ensure that a column of text does not begin with a single last line of a paragraph (widow), or end with a single first line of a paragraph(orphan).
Which feature lets you control this?
A. Paragraph Rules from the Paragraph panel menu
B. Justification from the Paragraph panel menu
C. Advanced Type pane of the Preferences dialog box
D. Keep Options from the Control panel menu
Answer: D
4. You have selected a table and you want to use Quick Apply to choose a table style.
What should you do so that Quick Apply only displays table styles?
A. press Ctrl+Enter (Windows) or Command+Enter (Mac OS) and then type “t:”
B. press Ctrl+Enter (Windows) or Command+Enter (Mac OS) and then Alt-t (Windows) or Option-t (Mac OS)
C. choose Window > Type & Tables > Table Styles, and then click on the Quick Apply button in the Table Styles panel
D. open the Quick Apply window and Option-click (Mac OS) or Alt-click (Windows) on any table style in the list
Answer:A
5. You want to apply an opaque gradient fill at an angle, from the lower-left corner to the upper-right corner of a square frame.
Which feature do you use to accomplish this?
A. New Gradient Swatch dialog box
B. Gradient panel
C. Effects panel
D. Gradient Feather tool
Answer: B
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6. Using the Preflight panel, you want to locate any imported color bitmapped image with an effective resolution under 250 ppi.
What should you do?
A. create a new Preflight profile with a Color Image Minimum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
B. create a new Preflight profile with a Color Image Maximum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
C. edit the Basic profile using a Color Image Minimum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
D. edit the Basic profile using a Color Image Maximum Resolution setting of 250 ppi
Answer:A
7. You select a color in the Swatches panel and open the Swatches panel menu. New Mixed Ink Swatch is disabled(grayed out).
Why do this happen?
A. You must first select the Gradient Swatch tool in the Tool panel.
B. You must select two swatches in the Swatches panel to create a mixed ink swatch.
C. You must have at least one spot color swatch to create a mixed ink swatch.
D. You need to first select an object on the page.
Answer: C
8. You want to place crop marks 4 mm from the trim edge when printing.
What should you do?
A. select the All Printer’s Marks checkbox in the Marks and Bleed pane of the Print Dialog Box, and set the Offset field to 4 mm
B. deselect the Use Document Bleed Settings checkbox in the Marks and Bleed tab of the Print Dialog Box, and manually enter 4 mm for all four sides
C. choose File > Document Setup, click the More Options button, and enter 4 mm as the Slug value
D. choose File > Print Booklet and enter 4 mm in the Creep field
Answer:A
9. You frequently enter text directly into InDesign via the Story Editor, and you often type so quickly that you type”Acme,Inc” instead of “Acme, Inc.”
What should you do?
A. You choose Edit > Spelling > Dynamic Spelling, which will alert you to every instance of the typo by placing a squiggly red underline beneath it.
B. You choose Edit > Spelling > Dictionary to open the Dictionary dialog, enter “Acme,Inc” in the Word field, and click the Add button
C. You open the Autocorrect pane of the Preferences dialog box and select the EnableAutocorrect checkbox. You then click the Add button, enter the incorrect and the correct spellings and click OK.
D. You apply to the comma in “Acme,Inc” a character style with a kerning value high enough to push the “Inc” a full space to the right.
Answer: C
10. What should you do to prevent a master page item from being overridden on a document page?
A. right-click (Ctrl+click with a one-button mouse) the item on the master page and from the contextual menu, select Lock Position
B. create a new layer, move the item to that layer and drag the layer to the bottom of the layer stack
C. right-click (Ctrl+click with a one-button mouse) the item on the master page and from the contextual menu,deselect Allow Master Item Overrides
D. create a new master page for that one item only and base the other master pages on that
Answer: C
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1. Which of the following statements is true regarding implementing Live Partition Mobility on two existing POWER6 based systems?
A.The systems must use internal storage for boot purposes.
B.All virtualized ethernet adapters must be numbered below 10.
C.The mobile partition’s network and disk access must be virtualized.
D.Each system must be controlled by a different Hardware Management Console (HMC).
ANSWER: C
2. Which of the following statements is true regarding virtual Ethernet redundancy?
A.Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.
B.Specifying an IP Address to ping is optional with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.
C.Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is required with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) Failover.
D.Specifying an IP Address to ping is required with Network Interface Backup (NIB) and is optional with Shared Ethernet Adapter (SEA) failover.
ANSWER: D
3. Which of the following can be used to re-deploy a system configuration in a disaster recovery scenario?
A.System plan
B.System profile
C.Critical console data
D.VIO server partition profile
ANSWER: A
4. A customer has 5 older POWER5 systems and they want to consolidate them onto a POWER6 system.
What information is important to analyze when deciding how to design the new machine using the System Planning Tool?
A.vmstat and iostat data from the older machines
B.The number of CPUs that were installed in the original machines
C.Data from Workload Estimator (WLE) and IBM Performance Management (PM)
D.Performance data that is collected from the new system after it has been put into production
ANSWER: C
5. The system administrator for a company plans to consolidate the workload of several ageing servers onto a new Power server.
The administrator’s intention is to virtualize all network and disk resources for each LPAR in the new system using VIOS 1.x.
Which of the following is correct regarding MAC addresses and World Wide Port Names (WWPN) in a client partition?
A.Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address and WWPN.
B.Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address or WWPN.
C.Each client LPAR will have its own MAC address, but no unique WWPN.
D.Each client LPAR will have no unique MAC address, but will have its own WWPN.
ANSWER: C
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6. An administrator has a Power 570 in default configuration with a 4 port 1 Gbps Integrated Virtual Ethernet (IVE) adapter. A new application requires that the MCS value for the first port group of the IVE adapter be set to 1.
If this change is made, what is the maximum number of logical ports, across both port groups, that the IVE adapter can provide?
A.4
B.16
C.20
D.32
ANSWER: C
7. A company has a new Power 570. They will install 2 LPARs and 1 VIO server. All networking will be virtualized.Their application requires a large amount of bandwidth, and Link Aggregation on the VIO server will be utilized.They have 4 dual port gigabit Ethernet cards. The network infrastructure team has advised the implementation team that they are able to allocate 8 ports split between two switches, SwitchA and SwitchB.
How can Link Aggregation (LA) be configured for maximum possible bandwidth available for the LPARs?
A.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 2 ports from SwitchA and 2 ports from SwitchB, no backup interfaces.
B.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing any 4 of the 8 available gigabit Ethernet interfaces and 1 backup interface.
C.Configure 1 LA device with all 8 gigabit Ethernet interfaces split between the two switches, and no backup interface.
D.Configure 2 LA devices, each containing 4 gigabit Ethernet interfaces connected to the same switch, no backup interfaces.
ANSWER: D
8. Which functionality would a customer use to share available CPU resources between AIX and Linux partitions on a Power system?
A.Dynamic LPAR
B.Micro Partitions
C.Entitled capacity
D.Multiple Shared Processor Pools
ANSWER: B
9. A customer is interested in server consolidation of their AIX and POWER Linux (SLES 10) environments and sees virtualization as an important component of this.Which of the following options provides the required virtualization and optimizes the use of the hardware?
A.A VIO server can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.
B.A VIO server partition with the PowerVM Lx86 for x86 installed can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk for both AIX and Linux clients.
C.A VIO Server partition can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition can provide virtualization of network and disk to Linux clients.
D.A VIO Server can provide virtualization of network and disk for AIX clients. A separate Linux partition running PowerVM Lx86 for x86 can provide virtualization capabilities of network and disk to Linux clients.
ANSWER: A
10. A customer has a requirement to provide VLAN tagging and a highly available network infrastructure for the logical partitions. A dual VIO server environment with Shared Ethernet Adapters (SEAs) is in place.
How can the customer support these requirements?
A.Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with a unique PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with unique PVID.
B.Create a SEA failover infrastructure with each having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapping to a Virtual Ethernet on the LPAR with the same PVID.
C.Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with the same PVID mapped to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the LPAR.
D.Create a Network Interface Backup (NIB) infrastructure with each SEA having a Virtual Ethernet with a different PVID. Map one to a Virtual Ethernet with the corresponding PVID on the client LPAR.
ANSWER: B
“CCNA “, also known as 640-802 exam, is a Cisco certification.
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The CCNA exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA certification. The CCNA (640-802) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.
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1.A software engineering firm wants to streamline call center operations to reduce customer wait times and improve employee productivity. Which Cisco solution best matches this business need?
A.optical network
B.IP telephony
C.WLAN
D.DSL
Correct:B
2.Which type of deployment utilizes ISRs with Cisco IOS Security feature sets to provide an ideal, low-cost,yet capable and powerful platform?
A.Small deployments
B.Large deployments
C.Medium deployments
D.Commercial deployments
E.Financial deployments
Correct:A
3.What does a router do?
A.stores data on the network and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)
B.routes traffic down alternative paths and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)
C.broadcasts data to all devices that are connected to it across the local-area network (LAN) and wide-area network(WAN)
D.reads Media Access Control (MAC) addresses to forward messages to the correct location and connects the local-area network (LAN) to the wide-area network (WAN)
Correct:B
4.What is the key element in SMB solutions?
A.They provide the lowest possible cost.
B.They reduce the cost and complexity associated with multiple services in a single device.
C.They reduce complexity by eliminating features.
D.Consumer-level products are suitable for SMB needs.
Correct:B
5.Which tool provides a complete guide that makes it easier for partners, regardless of their experience level, to sell Cisco Unified Communications solutions to their customers?
A.Solution Expert
B.Quote Builder
C.Sales Accelerator
D.Competitive Edge
E.Cisco Discovery
Correct:C
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6.What is a benefit of Internet protocol (IP) telephony?
A.synchronizes password exchanges for call setup
B.eliminates the need for physical cabling in a TCP/IP network
C.enables two-way voice transmission over a packet-switched TCP/IP network
D.creates an encrypted tunnel for voice through a Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)/IP network
Correct:C
7.What distinguishes IP telephony from standard analog telephony?
A.IP telephony uses IP addressing to provide a single dedicated path through a circuit-switched network.
B.IP telephony uses IP addressing to enable two-way voice transmission over a packet-switched TCP/IP network.
C.IP telephony uses TCP/IP to ensure that voice packets are given priority throughout the network so that conversations arrive intact.
D.IP telephony uses IP addressing to establish a single dedicated path through a packet-switched network.
Correct:B
8.You are a Cisco engineer of Pass4sure.com. As far as you know, which two of the following you will benefit from unified fabric? (Choose two.)
A.reduced I/O bandwidth
B.reduced throughput
C.reduction of server adapters required for I/O
D.reduced cabling
Correct:C D
9.You work as the network administrator at Pass4sure.com. Which of the following is correct if using the Cisco VFrame DC as a data center provisioning device?
A.Cisco VFrame DC can work only with the Nexus 7000 Series Switches.
B.Cisco VFrame DC can provision only network resources.
C.Cisco VFrame DC can work with VMware.
D.Cisco VFrame DC can work with the Catalyst 6500 Series Switches and the Nexus 7000 Series Switches but not with MDS.
Correct:C
10.You work as a Cisco engineer at Pass4sure.com. With your judgement, in the highly competitive networking switch market, which of the following can Cisco make that the competition cannot?
A.10 Gigabit Ethernet is available on all switches and line cards, and blade switches for both data networks and storage networks..
B.Cisco has blade server switches for both data networking and storage networking requirements.
C.Cisco has a commitment to using Ethernet as the backbone connection system for the data center.
D.Cisco supports modular switches and top-of-rack switches for both Gigabit Ethernet and 10 Gigabit Ethernet, and blade switches for both data networks and storage networks.
Correct:D