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Test4actual has updated the latest Microsoft Business Solutions MB6-295 exam,maybe it will help you pass your exams.

1.
You have been hired by a customer to configure the Content Management feature of their
Enterprise Portal. Which TWO of the following (based on best practices) are the basic steps
involved?
A.Create categories in the Categories form and assign Web users to specific tasks (eg. Author, Moderator,
Proofreader).
B.On the Users tab on the Categories form, select all the Web users that can have access to the category.
Allow users to unsubscribe via the Portal.
C.Do not assign Web users on the Users tabs on the Categories form. Allow Web users to subscribe
themselves via the Portal.
D.Enter all Articles on the Articles form. News articles cannot be entered via the Portal.
Correct:A B
2.You are installing an Enterprise Portal for a company. They have purchased a 25 user Enterprise
Portal license. They have 50 users who will use the new Enterprise Portal, and one Web server.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
A.They must purchase another 25 user Enterprise Portal license for all users to have access to the
Enterprise Portal.
B.They do not need to purchase any more licenses, but only 25 users can log into the Enterprise Portal at
the same time
C.They do not need to purchase any more licenses. They have only one Web server which is considered
as one Enterprise Portal user.
D.They should purchase another Web server and allow 25 users to log in synchronously via each Web
server.
Correct:B
3.You need SSL to be enabled on a menu item in a specific Web site. When is this the case?
A.SSL is always enabled on all menu items in a Web site when the parameter se SSL?on the Web site is
active.
B.SSL is enabled on the menu item by using the property ebsecuretransaction?and the parameter ‘Use
SSL’ on the Web site is active.
C.SSL is enabled on menu items for all Web sites by default.
D.SSL only works on Microsoft Axapta classes and can be enabled in the class property sheet.
Correct:B
4.The Microsoft Axapta Enterprise Portal is role based. What is a role?
A.A role is synonymous with a Web user.
B.A role is a department in the employee hierarchy.
C.A role defines a group of people who perform similar tasks.
D.A role can be set to either Customer, Employee, Vendor or Business Relation.
Correct:C
5.What is the purpose of a switchboard?
A.A switchboard handles TCP packets being sent to a Web server hosting multiple Web sites.
B.A switchboard is enabled in the Article parameters to allow reply posts in the Content Management tool.
C.A switchboard is used to navigate web users between multiple web sites.
D.A switchboard handles TCP/IP requests being sent to a Web server from outside the LAN.
Correct:C
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6.
Where can the Microsoft Axapta Business Connector be registered as a COM+ application?
A.From the Microsoft Axapta Configuration Utility.
B.From the Windows Control Panel.
C.From the Microsoft Axapta setup wizard.
D.From a Windows command prompt.
Correct:A
7.The company you are working for wants to deploy a Live and and Test Enterprise Portal. You
have decided that each should be deployed on a separate Web server, but from the same
Microsoft Axapta application. Which TWO of the following configurations will you require?
A.One Business Connector on the Application Server.
B.Two Business Connectors one
on each Web Server.
C.In each instance of IIS, set the Web site to point at the Microsoft Axapta Business Connector.
D.In each Web site record in Microsoft Axapta, set the Web server name to the relevant Web server.
Correct:B D
8.In the Customer SelfService
parameters, you can see that the ‘Start product group’ setting has
been set as ‘SOFTWARE_PRODUCTS’. What does this mean?
A.Items in the SOFTWARE_PRODUCTS item group can have production orders started via the
Enterprise Portal.
B.Items in the SOFTWARE_PRODUCTS category in the Product Catalog Manager will be displayed
when a customer logs into the Enterprise Portal.
C.When a new product group is created in the Enterprise Portal, its name will default to
SOFTWARE_PRODUCTS.
D.Items in the SOFTWARE_PRODUCTS item group must be selected for an Enterprise Portal Sales
Order before other products become available.
Correct:B
9.You have created a new CSS class in the Cascading StyleSheet Editor for displaying code in a
fixedwidth
font. How do you apply it to text on your web pages?
A.In the Web Application Editor, highlight the text that should be displayed in a fixedwidth
font. On the
formatting toolbar, select the new CSS class from the CSS list.
B.In the Web Application Editor, highlight the text that should be displayed in a fixedwidth
font. Rightclick
on the text and select CSS. Choose the new CSS class from the list.
C.In the Web Application Editor, open the Page Properties from the Format menu, and add the new CSS
class to the CSS list.
D.CSS classes can only be applied to text inside Web elements or WebLets, not directly on Web Pages.
Correct:A
10.Why are label files used in web application development? Choose TWO.
A.Because static text cannot be saved into a Web page.
B.Multilanguage
websites are easier to deploy and maintain
C.They promote consistency across the application with regards to visible texts
D.Performance is improved when using of label files.
Correct:B C
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Hi,guys.
Test4actual has updated the latest Microsoft Business Solutions MB5-229 exam,maybe it will help you pass your exams.
The newest practice for you:http://exam.test4actual.com/MB5-229.pdf

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I have passed the Microsoft Business Solutions MB6-291 exam recently,if you are worried about it,maybe I can share some experience with you.A colleague of mine, who have got the Microsoft Business Solutions, recommend Test4actual to me, saying that without the help of test4actual, he couldn’t have passed the exam.
Any doubts about the products quality left? Try the Test4actual Microsoft Business Solutions MB6-291 exam free demo before buy!

1.
What is the notice board used for?
A.The notice board is used for showing a message to a specific employee in the registration form next
time the employee registers anything
B.The notice board can be used by an employee who wants to send a message to another employee
C.It can be used to give information to all employees on a specific date via the registration form
D.The notice board shows an overview of all Assistants
Correct:C
2.In Shop Floor Control running the wizard will select and update which of the following?
A.Standard profile and standard pay agreement
B.Setup parameters, assign jobid
on ‘old’ productions and projects and create system jobs
C.Standard calculation group and standard approval group
D.Standard costs
Correct:B
3.When is the secondary pay type used in a pay agreement?
A.When the line in the pay agreement is delimited to one activity
B.When a constant is activated in the pay agreement
C.When the line in the pay agreement is delimited to one ‘operation’
D.When a ’switch code’ has been registered
Correct:D
4.Pay agreement lines can, among other things, be delimited by for example weekday, time of day
or a specific indirect activity. Which of the following can also be used as a delimiter?
A.Project
B.Operation
C.Seniority
D.Profile
Correct:B C D
5.On a Profile it is possible to specify time limits under the field group ‘Standard time’. What are
these fields used for?
A.’Standard time’ is used for specifying how many hours, as a minimum, an employee must work in a
week
B.’Standard time’ is used for checking, that the number of minutes between clockin
and clockout
on the
profile is correct
C.’Standard time’ is normally used for specifying a fixed amount of hours where there is no fixed clockin
and clockout
time
D.’Standard time’ is used for specifying governmental rules of the allowed number of hours an employee
can work during a day
Correct:C

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6.Profile delimitation in a pay agreement is used for…
A.Generating of evening /
night premiums for example, this only has to be paid out if you work on an
evening or a night profile
B.Generating of premiums which only will be paid out between clockin/
clockout
on a profile
C.Generating of overtime, thus only time defined as overtime in the profile will be transferred as overtime.
This means that each pay line under overtime in the pay agreement must be delimited by a profile
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D.
Indicating a new 24hour
period, thus transfer to pay happens on two different dates
Correct:A
7.A waiting job is:
A.A job registration that is automatically inserted by the system in the time zones, between clock in and
clock out, that is not accounted for
B.The job that is to be used on days where no registrations have been made
C.The job that is to be stated if an employee has not reached the expected amount of hours on a day
D.A job on which the employee logs in when he is to sweep the floor, clean up, etc.
Correct:A
8.In the job registration window it is possible to make the following types of registrations:
A.Production registrations, registrations on indirect activities, project registrations, coassistance
registrations, break registrations, and ‘clock out for absence’ registrations
B.Production registrations, registrations on indirect activities, registrations on profiles, and ‘clock out for
absence’ registrations
C.Production registrations, registrations on indirect activities, and registrations on pay agreements
D.Production registrations, registrations on indirect activities, registrations on profiles, registrations on
groups, and ‘clock out for absence’ registrations
Correct:A
9.Which of the following are true about the profile calendar?
A.The profile calendar is used to determine which dates a profile can be used on
B.The profile calendar overrules the Profile group when determining the profile for the employee on a
specific day
C.The profile calendar is used to link employees to a given profile on a given date
D.The profile calendar is only used to select the profile for an employee who has not shown up for work
Correct:B C
10.In a pay agreement it is possible to make each line dependent on an operation. However, the
following has to be met as a minimum:
A.Axapta has to be installed as a minimum with Production II, route management
B.Axapta has to be installed with Production III, shop management
C.The operation must be of the job type ‘process job’
D.Piecework must be setup for this operation
Correct:A

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Some Microsoft Business Solutions MB5-538 exam practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.
1.
The Headquarters Client application communicates with what other RMS Components?
A.The HQ Server and the store’s Store Operations Manager
B.Headquarters Manager and the store’s Store Operations Manager
C.Headquarters Manager and the store’s SQL Server
D.The HQ Server and the store’s SQL Server Database
Correct:D
2.You currently have one store running Microsoft Dynamics Store
Operations and are
implementing Headquarters. You plan to have Global Customers within the Headquarters
enterprise. What should you do to mark the existing customers as global in the existing Store
Operations database?
A.At the store, mark the “Enable global customers for multistore”
Configuration option
B.At the store, mark the “New customers default as global customers” Configuration option
C.Set up the Global Customer Account Options in Headquarters Manager
D.Run a TransactSQL
(TSQL)
statement to update the customers’ “Customer is a global/enterprise
customer” option
Correct:D
3.When importing into the Headquarters database from a Store Operations database using HQ
Administrator, what data is included in the import? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Purchase Orders
B.Item Taxes
C.Sales History
D.Categories
Correct:B D
4.How should you configure Headquarters Server to ensure it is automatically started each time
the machine is started?
A.Set the Startup type to Automatic on the Headquarters Server service
B.Set the Startup type to Automatic on the Headquarters Client service
C.Set the Startup type to Automatic in Headquarters Administrator Configuration
D.Place a shortcut to the HQServer.exe file in the Windows Startup folder and mark the “Autostartup
Headquarters Server” option in the Headquarters Server Configuration window.
Correct:D
5.Of the following, which is the recommended method for building the Headquarters database?
A.Enter all information manually into Headquarters
B.Import an existing Store Operations database
C.Make a backup of a Store Operations database and use that as the Headquarters database
D.Enter information into Microsoft Excel and import it into Headquarters
Correct:B

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6.When using Microsoft Dynamics Retail Management System Headquarters version 2.0, in which
application do you enter the product key for each store?
A.Headquarters Client
B.Headquarters Server
C.Headquarters Administrator
D.Headquarters Manager
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Correct:
A
7.Which operation should be performed in Headquarters Administrator if you feel the tables and
indexes are unsynchronized resulting in slow database performance?
A.Reindex
B.Change Collation
C.Upgrade
D.Check
Correct:A
8.Which of the following wizards creates a new Store Operations database and copies centrally
maintained data from Headquarters into it?
A.New Store Wizard
B.Export Database Wizard
C.New Item Wizard
D.Inventory Wizard
Correct:B
9.You have multiple stores using Microsoft Dynamics Store
Operations 2.0. You have recently
purchased Headquarters to consolidate your enterprise data. Which method should you perform
to create the Headquarters database which will contain the stores’ items and suppliers?
A.Create a blank Headquarters database using the RMShqdb.bck file; then manually create records for
each item and supplier using Headquarters Manager.
B.Import the records from one of the store’s Store Operations databases into the head office database.
Then, in Headquarters Manager, manually create records for each of the other store’s items and suppliers.
C.Import the records from one of the store’s Store Operations databases into the head office database.
Then, in Headquarters Administrator, use the Import Store Operations command for each of the other
store’s databases.
D.Create a ‘master’ store database by importing each of the store’s records into one Store Operations
database. Then, in Headquarters Administrator, import the master store database using the Import Store
Operations command.
Correct:D
10.Headquarters licenses are sold by which entity?
A.Register
B.User
C.Store
D.Server
Correct:C

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Some Microsoft Business Solutions MB5-538 exam practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.
1.
The Headquarters Client application communicates with what other RMS Components?
A.The HQ Server and the store’s Store Operations Manager
B.Headquarters Manager and the store’s Store Operations Manager
C.Headquarters Manager and the store’s SQL Server
D.The HQ Server and the store’s SQL Server Database
Correct:D
2.You currently have one store running Microsoft Dynamics Store
Operations and are
implementing Headquarters. You plan to have Global Customers within the Headquarters
enterprise. What should you do to mark the existing customers as global in the existing Store
Operations database?
A.At the store, mark the “Enable global customers for multistore”
Configuration option
B.At the store, mark the “New customers default as global customers” Configuration option
C.Set up the Global Customer Account Options in Headquarters Manager
D.Run a TransactSQL
(TSQL)
statement to update the customers’ “Customer is a global/enterprise
customer” option
Correct:D
3.When importing into the Headquarters database from a Store Operations database using HQ
Administrator, what data is included in the import? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Purchase Orders
B.Item Taxes
C.Sales History
D.Categories
Correct:B D
4.How should you configure Headquarters Server to ensure it is automatically started each time
the machine is started?
A.Set the Startup type to Automatic on the Headquarters Server service
B.Set the Startup type to Automatic on the Headquarters Client service
C.Set the Startup type to Automatic in Headquarters Administrator Configuration
D.Place a shortcut to the HQServer.exe file in the Windows Startup folder and mark the “Autostartup
Headquarters Server” option in the Headquarters Server Configuration window.
Correct:D
5.Of the following, which is the recommended method for building the Headquarters database?
A.Enter all information manually into Headquarters
B.Import an existing Store Operations database
C.Make a backup of a Store Operations database and use that as the Headquarters database
D.Enter information into Microsoft Excel and import it into Headquarters
Correct:B

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6.When using Microsoft Dynamics Retail Management System Headquarters version 2.0, in which
application do you enter the product key for each store?
A.Headquarters Client
B.Headquarters Server
C.Headquarters Administrator
D.Headquarters Manager
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3
Correct:
A
7.Which operation should be performed in Headquarters Administrator if you feel the tables and
indexes are unsynchronized resulting in slow database performance?
A.Reindex
B.Change Collation
C.Upgrade
D.Check
Correct:A
8.Which of the following wizards creates a new Store Operations database and copies centrally
maintained data from Headquarters into it?
A.New Store Wizard
B.Export Database Wizard
C.New Item Wizard
D.Inventory Wizard
Correct:B
9.You have multiple stores using Microsoft Dynamics Store
Operations 2.0. You have recently
purchased Headquarters to consolidate your enterprise data. Which method should you perform
to create the Headquarters database which will contain the stores’ items and suppliers?
A.Create a blank Headquarters database using the RMShqdb.bck file; then manually create records for
each item and supplier using Headquarters Manager.
B.Import the records from one of the store’s Store Operations databases into the head office database.
Then, in Headquarters Manager, manually create records for each of the other store’s items and suppliers.
C.Import the records from one of the store’s Store Operations databases into the head office database.
Then, in Headquarters Administrator, use the Import Store Operations command for each of the other
store’s databases.
D.Create a ‘master’ store database by importing each of the store’s records into one Store Operations
database. Then, in Headquarters Administrator, import the master store database using the Import Store
Operations command.
Correct:D
10.Headquarters licenses are sold by which entity?
A.Register
B.User
C.Store
D.Server
Correct:C

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Microsoft Business Solutions “, also known as MB5-292 exam, is a Microsoft certification.
Preparing for the MB5-292 exam? Searching MB5-292 Test Questions, MB5-292 Practice Exam, MB5-292 Dumps?
1.
If a firewall other than the Windows Firewall is in use on a store’s network, what action must be
taken for Microsoft Point of Sale to work properly?
A.Open the firewall for the port used by Point of Sale.
B.Disable the firewall.
C.Give all Point of Sale users permissions on the main computer.
D.None of the above.
Correct:A
2.What is the name of the default MSDE instance installed with Microsoft Point of Sale?
A.(local)
B.\MSPOS
C.\MSPOSInstance
D.\MSPOSPractice
Correct:C
3.Practice mode uses what database?
A.The store database.
B.A backup database.
C.The practice database.
D.None of the above.
Correct:C
4.Microsoft Point of Sale works on which operating systems?(Choose the 2 that apply.)
A.Windows XP SP2.
B.Windows Server 2003.
C.Windows 2000.
D.Windows Millennium Edition.
Correct:A B
5.What is the first step for using practice mode?
A.Set up the practice mode database.
B.Switch to practice mode.
C.Manually create some ‘dummy’ items.
D.Create a special employee record.
Correct:A

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6.After installing Microsoft Point of Sale, how many days may pass before the product must be
activated?
A.1 day
B.10 days
C.20 days
D.60 days
Correct:C
7.What composes a sales tax?
A.Items.
B.Tax authorities.
C.Prices.
D.None of the above.
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Correct:
B
8.Which of the following is NOT an option for the “Cost Update Method” in Microsoft Point of Sale
Manager?
A.Last Cost
B.Weighted Average
C.FIFO
D.None
Correct:C
9.To setup the Touchless Tendering feature, which of the following options or configurations is
NOT required?
A.Setup Credit and Debit tender types
B.Configure the Validation mask on each Credit and Debit tender type
C.Enable the Verify via EDC checkbox on each Credit and Debit tender type
D.Enable the Touchless Tendering options in Manager under Tools | Options | Tender
Correct:C
10.What causes an exchange rate to go into effect at the register?
A.Assigning a currency with an exchange rate to an active tender type.
B.Using the currency calculator.
C.Having cashiers do manual calculations.
D.None of the above.
Correct:A
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Test4actual has updated the latest Microsoft MB5-554 exam,maybe it will help you pass your exams.
1.
What is the maximum number of account segments allowed in Microsoft Small Business
Financials?
A.1
B.2
C.5
D.10
Correct:C
2.What is the maximum account length allowed in Microsoft Small Business Financials?
A.5
B.10
C.20
D.25
Correct:D
3.Which of the following file formats are available to save a report to in Microsoft Small Business
Financials? Choose the 3 that apply.
A.HTML
B.DIF
C.Comma Delimited
D.Text
Correct:A C D
4.What is the maximum number of fiscal periods you can have in a fiscal year in Microsoft Small
Business Financials?
A.12
B.13
C.24
D.367
Correct:B
5.Where can integration to MapPoint be activated in Microsoft Small Business Financials?
A.Company Setup
B.User Preferences
C.Transaction Setup
D.Process Monitor
Correct:B

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6.Where can you remove a “stranded” user from the system in Microsoft Small Business
Financials?
A.Security Setup
B.Company Setup
C.User Activity
D.User Preferences
Correct:C
7.What is the maximum number of companies that can be set up in Microsoft Small Business
Financials?
A.1
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B.
3
C.5
D.Unlimited
Correct:D
8.Where are the “built in” backup and restore functions located in Small Business Financials?
A.Setup on the Menu Bar
B.File on the Menu Bar
C.Posting on the Tool Bar
D.There isn’t a “built in” backup or restore function
Correct:B
9.Which of the following statements are true about the Notes feature? Choose the 2 that apply.
A.Notes can be attached to windows
B.Notes cannot be changed once entered
C.Notes can be attached to individual vendors and customers
D.Notes are only available if the feature is turned on in company setup
Correct:A C
10.What is the maximum number of licensed concurrent users you can have in Microsoft Small
Business Financials?
A.1
B.2
C.5
D.10
Correct:D
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Test4actual has updated the latest HP hp0-p13 exam,maybe it will help you pass your exams.

1. Which functions are provided by Integrity Virtual Machines but not by hard partitions?
A. failover protection for high availability
B. ability to run multiple operating systems simultaneously
C. electrical isolation
D. dynamic resource allocation
Answer: D

2. When you are designing an HP Integrity solution, which HP tool should you use to determine power consumption?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. sizing tool
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool (PQRT)
D. power calculator
Answer: D

3. Your customer wants to permanently move processor usage rights within a server. Which type of licensing is needed?
A. TiCAP
B. vPar
C. GiCAP
D. iCAP
Answer: D

4. Which feature of an HP Integrity cell-based server enables you to replace a failed processor on one partition, while the other partition is running?
A. dynamic processor deallocation
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. electrically isolated partitions
D. hot plug processors
Answer: C

5. Which feature of the HP sx2000 chipset makes the Integrity rx7640 server a better choice for high availability than the rx6600?
A. double chip spare
B. Hyper-Threading
C. link self-healing
D. Dynamic Processor Resilience
Answer: C

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6. A customer is currently using 32-bit processors in their data center. At present, they are not running out of disk space for their applications, and they

have not had to create partitions for their databases.
What advantage can this customer gain by switching to 64-bit computing? (Select two.)
A. greater security and availability
B. reduced diskspace costs
C. faster response times for queries
D. fewer processors required for tasks
E. potential reduction in licensing costs
Answer: DE

7. Which applications will benefit most from porting from 32-bit to Itanium 64-bit processors? (Select two.)
A. web services
B. floating point calculations
C. very large databases
D. online transaction processing
E. mission-critical applications
Answer: BC

8. Which high-availability feature keeps a system running in spite of a multi-bit DRAM error?
A. chip spare like memory
B. memory scrubbing
C. dynamic page deallocation
D. address control parity
Answer: A

9. Which statements are true about memory in cell-based Integrity systems? (Select two.)
A. Memory modules of different sizes can be mixed in the same cell.
B. Cell local memory can be configured as a percentage of memory.
C. Cell local memory is faster than interleaved memory for providing access to memory on other cells in the system.
D. Memory must be installed in dual quads of the same size memory modules.
E. Cell-based systems require cell local memory.
Answer: AB

10. Which statement is true regarding I/O technologies in HP Integrity servers?
A. PCIe uses a dual simplex point-to-point topology to move data.
B. PCI-X and PCIe support complex routing.
C. PCI, PCI-X, and PCIe use parallel buses.
D. PCI and PCIe are connector-compatible.
Answer: A

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“Cisco Others Certification “, also known as 642-357 exam, is a Cisco certification.
With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 88 Q&A to your 642-357 exam preparation. In the 642-357 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Cisco Others Certification helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD

2. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D

3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C

4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD

5. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C

6. What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management interface of a Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. use SNMPv3 only
B. configure IP ACLs
C. configure management VSANs
D. use digital certificates
E. implement RBAC
Answer: BD

7. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for iSCSI connectivity to workgroup servers. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the iSCSI interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C

8. What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if each connects the same number of host and storage ports?
Select the best response.
A. fewer hops for a given exchange
B. fewer long-wave SFPs
C. fewer ISL connections
D. fewer domains on the domain list
E. fewer director-class switches
Answer: C

9. What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other mission-critical traffic?
Select the best response.
A. VSANs
B. zones
C. QoS
D. IVR
Answer: A

10. Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?
Select the best response.
A. Storage Services Module (SSM)
B. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps Fibre Channel module
C. Multiprotocol Services module
D. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2
Answer: A

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11. Your Cisco MDS 9509 configuration requires 2000 watts of power and is configured with two 2500W power supplies. If 110V power is provided to the switch, in which power mode does the switch operate?
Select the best response.
A. The director will operate in redundant mode only.
B. The director will operate in combined mode only.
C. The director will operate in redundant mode or combined mode
D. The director cannot operate with 110V power
Answer: B

12. You are implementing an FCIP solution for SAN extension between two data centers using the Cisco MDS 9000 platform. For redundancy, there are two Metro Ethernet paths between the data centers. How can you specify the primary and secondary path for each FCIP tunnel?
Select the best response.
A. Configure OSPF routing on the IPS-8
B. Configure EIGRP routing on the IPS-8
C. Configure static routes on the IPS-8
D. Configure QoS on the IPS-8
Answer: C

13. Which of the following is the recommended design practice for routing from Cisco MDS to remote iSCSI host subnets?
Select the best response.
A. configure a default route on the IPS module
B. configure a static route on the IPS module
C. configure a dynamic IP routing protocol on the IPS module
D. place the iSCSI hosts on the same subnet as the IPS module interface
Answer: B

14. Your customer has a number of data storage requirements:

servers are not responsible for volume management or data migration
storage is provisioned in real time
legacy and heterogeneous storage assets can be consolidated and fully utilized
data can be protected using simplified snapshot and replication techniques
data can be assigned to different classes easily

Which solution would meet these requirements?
Select the best response.
A. VSANs
B. Wide-Area Application Services (WAAS)
C. fabric-based virtualization
D. LUN zoning
E. host-based virtualization
Answer: C

15. Which two kinds of applications require sustained throughput and are sensitive to latency? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. synchronous replication
B. asynchronous replication
C. OLTP
D. tape backup
E. e-mail
Answer: AD

16. Which three solutions would be suitable for data replication between two data centers separated by 450 km? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. FCIP over routed IP network
B. FCIP over SONET/SDH
C. iSCSI over SONET/SDH
D. CWDM
E. DWDM
F. dark fiber
Answer: ABE

17. What is an advantage of Cisco MDS 9000 Distributed Device Alias Services over Fibre Channel aliases?
Select the best response.
A. Persist across switch reboots
B. Stored on the management server, not on the switch
C. Preserved when devices are moved between VSANs
D. Simplify SAN migration operations
Answer: C

18. A customer has 12 hosts, each capable of a sustained I/O rate of 75 MBps. The customer wants to connect these hosts to the fabric with a 32-port line card. For optimal performance what is the maximum number of hosts that should be connected to any four-port, host-optimized quad?
Select the best response.
A. one
B. two
C. three
D. four
Answer: C

19. Select three advantages of using fabric-based storage virtualization instead of host-based virtualization. (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. offers a single point of management
B. supports heterogeneous storage
C. does not require a host agent
D. insulates the hosts from storage changes
E. provides mirroring
Answer: ACD

20. What are three benefits of storage consolidation? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. management costs are reduced, since fewer people are needed to administer the common management applications
B. bandwidth demands on the network are reduced
C. corporate data is more accessible
D. Fibre Channel is no longer needed to transport traffic
E. existing disk space is utilized more effectively
Answer: ACE

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Some IBM COG-310 exam practice updated by Test4actual may help you pass your exams.

1. When users cannot access a TM1 application, the application developer should ensure the host process is correct. Which of the following is the host process?
A. TM1 data server
B. TM1 admin server
C. TM1 web server
D. TM1 local server
Answer: B

2. An application developer needs to know the last time the Sales Forecast cube was updated. The cube file, including the date and time stamp, can be found in which of the following locations?
A. In the data directory.
B. In the data file.
C. On the web server.
D. On the admin server.
Answer:A

3. Data is loaded into cells in a cube. A cell is identified by the intersection of items from which of the following objects?
A. Attribute
B. Subset
C. Dimension
D. Slice
Answer: C

4. Aggregation is automatically applied when building a dimension. Which of the following option is the basis for aggregation?
A. Formats
B. Rules
C. Attributes
D. Hierarchies
Answer: D

5. When an application developer constructs a cube, what is the minimum number of dimensions the cube must contain?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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6. Why would a developer create a consolidated element?
A. To display comments in a cube.
B. To apply alternate names to an element.
C. To store numeric data.
D. To calculate an aggregation.
Answer: D

7. Which of the following element properties is used to perform subtraction within the dimension hierarchy?
A. Weight
B. Format
C. Attribute
D. Aggregation
Answer:A

8. Which of the following element types identifies the lowest level in a dimension hierarchy?
A. String
B. Attribute
C. Consolidation
D. Simple
Answer: D

9. Why would an application developer assign a negative weight to an element in a dimension?
A. To store credit balances without a negative sign.
B. To provide an alternate drill down path to the dimension.
C. To display data in different formats.
D. To store data in multiple hierarchies.
Answer:A

10. Which of the following attributes can be used to display element names in multiple languages?
A. Text
B. String
C. Alias
D. Format
Answer: C

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11. Why would an application developer apply a numeric attribute to an element?
A. To store a numeric code for the color of a product.
B. To display the account number instead of the account name.
C. To display the values in an alternate format.
D. To store the square footage of a store for capacity planning.
Answer: D

12. Some users would like to display an account using the account name followed by the account number. Other users would like to display only the account name. Which option should the application developer use to satisfy both requirements?
A. Create a text attribute for each requirement.
B. Define an alias for each requirement.
C. Define two alternate hierarchies.
D. Create two dimensions that link to each other.
Answer: B

13. Which TM1 object is created using Turbo Integrator?
A. Action buttons
B. Dimensions
C. Chores
D. Application folders
Answer: B

14. An application developer needs to update dimensions and then load data into a cube during off hours. Which of the following options can be used for this?
A. Chores
B. Rules
C. Conversion
D. Worksheets
Answer:A

15. What can an application developer provide to automate the save process for all TM1 objects?
A. A script to store ODBC data in a cube.
B. A chore with scripts to write data to all cubes.
C. A rule to save data in all cubes.
D. A chore with scripts to write data to all dimensions.
Answer: B

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