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1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD
2. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D
3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C
4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD
5. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C

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6. What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management interface of a Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. use SNMPv3 only
B. configure IP ACLs
C. configure management VSANs
D. use digital certificates
E. implement RBAC
Answer: BD
7. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for iSCSI connectivity to workgroup servers. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the iSCSI interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
8. What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if each connects the same number of host and storage ports?
Select the best response.
A. fewer hops for a given exchange
B. fewer long-wave SFPs
C. fewer ISL connections
D. fewer domains on the domain list
E. fewer director-class switches
Answer: C
9. What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other mission-critical traffic?
Select the best response.
A. VSANs
B. zones
C. QoS
D. IVR
Answer: A
10. Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?
Select the best response.
A. Storage Services Module (SSM)
B. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps Fibre Channel module
C. Multiprotocol Services module
D. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2
Answer: A

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 640-816
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2
Questions and Answers:147Q&A
Update Time:2009-12-16
Price:$75.00
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With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 181 Q&A to your 642-642 exam preparation. In the 642-642 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in CCIP CCVP IP Communications helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

Exam Description
The QOS exam is one of the qualifying exams for the Cisco Certified Internetwork Professional, Cisco Certified Voice Professional, Cisco IP Telephony Design Specialist, Cisco IP Telephony Express Specialist, Cisco IP Telephony Operations Specialist, and Cisco IP Telephony Support Specialist certifications. The QOS 642-642 exam will test materials covered under the Implementing Cisco Quality of Service QOS v2.1 course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has knowledge and skills necessary to configure and troubleshoot Cisco IOS routers running Quality of Service protocols in Service Provider and Enterprise environments. The exam covers topics on IP QOS, classification and marking Mechanisms, queuing mechanisms, traffic shaping and policing mechanisms, congestion avoidance mechanisms, link efficiency mechanisms, modular QOS command line interface, and QOS Best Practices.

1. The Acme Corporation is experiencing poor, choppy audio quality on voice calls placed across their WAN link to and from Madison. What can be done to the Location parameter for Madison to help alleviate this problem?
Select the best response.
A. Increase the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
B. Nothing, the audio bandwidth Location parameter for Madison is not related to the problem.
C. Remove the audio bandwidth parameter in the Location configuration window for Madison.
D. Decrease the audio bandwidth setting in the Location configuration window for Madison.
Answer: D
2. How are Cisco Unified CallManager location parameters used?
Select the best response.
A. Assign directory numbers to devices as they connect to the IP telephony network.
B. Implement call admission control in a centralized call processing deployment.
C. Provide alternate call routing when the primary call path is unavailable.
D. Specify the bandwidth used for audio and video calls.
Answer: B
3. What is the impact of setting an RSVP policy per location pair with a default interlocation RSVP service policy?
Select the best response.
A. additional bandwidth capacity will be added to the default interlocation RSVP service policy
B. the RSVP policy will only be associated with one type of call; for example, if it is associated with video calls, audio calls will not be impacted
C. an RSVP mandatory mid-call retry counter will be added to calls that encounter mid-call retry errors
D. the default interlocation RSVP service policy will be overridden
Answer: D
4. How is recovery from SRST mode back to Cisco Unified Communications Manager call processing accomplished?
Select the best response.
A. The IP phones receive Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway.
B. The IP phones receive a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. They then register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager and cancel their registration with the SRST gateway.
C. The SRST gateway receives Keepalives from Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The SRST gateway receives a response to Keepalives sent to Cisco Unified Communications Manager. The SRST gateway then rejects the IP phone registrations with instructions to register with Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: B
5. Which debug command can be used to troubleshoot an issue with a Tcl script?
Select the best response.
A. debug tcl script
B. debug call script
C. debug custom script
D. debug voice application
Answer: D

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6. Which encryption algorithm does SRTP utilize?
Select the best response.
A. SEAL
B. 3DES
C. IPSEC
D. AES
Answer: D
7. What is required to effectively use the Cisco CTL client to activate security in an IP telephony network?
Select the best response.
A. H.323 gateway
B. Security Tokens
C. IPSEC
D. Secure SRST
Answer: B
8. When configuring CAPF, user intervention is required when using which authentication mode?
Select the best response.
A. by existing certificate (precedence to LSC)
B. by null string
C. by existing certificate (precedence to MIC)
D. by authentication string
E. user intervention never required
Answer: D
9. Manual IOS SRTP configuration is required on which two types of gateways? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. H.323
B. MGCP
C. PRI
D. SIP
E. SCCP
Answer: AD
10. Which service, when correctly configured in Enterprise Parameters, permits the phone configuration files to be encrypted?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Service
B. Cisco IP Voice Media Streaming App Service
C. Cisco CTIManager Service
D. Cisco TFTP Service
E. Cisco CTL Client Service
Answer: D

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Preparing for the 642-426 exam? Searching 642-426 Test Questions, 642-426 Practice Exam, 642-426 Dumps?

With the complete collection of questions and answers, Test4actual has assembled to take you through 42 Q&A to your 642-426 exam preparation. In the 642-426 exam resources, you will cover every field and category in Cisco Others Certification Cisco Others Certification helping to ready you for your successful Cisco Certification.

1. Which three capabilities cannot be configured if the default dial peer is matched? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. disable DID
B. invoke a Tcl application
C. enable dtmf-relay
D. disable VAD
E. set codec to G.711
F. set preference to 1
Answer: BCD
2. Cisco CallManager 5.0 has just been deployed in two locations across a wide-area link. A distributed model with an intercluster trunk has been used. When you call an IP phone at the remote site the phone rings, but as soon as the other person picks up the phone, the call is dropped.Where should you look to diagnose the problem?
Select the best response.
A. locations
B. system parameters
C. media resource group
D. Cisco Unified CallManager group
E. Cisco Unified CallManager CTI traces
Answer: C
3. Your company has a centralized IP Telephony system and branch offices in eight major cities.The manager of your company help desk recently published local access numbers for external customers to reduce the costs associated with your company’s toll-free 800 service. However,when customers call the new local numbers they hear a reorder tone instead of your centralized IVR.
What is the best solution to this issue?
Select the best response.
A. Deploy transcoders at each remote location.
B. Deploy transcoders at the central location.
C. Deploy Cisco Unified IP IVRs at each remote location.
D. Increase the number of ports in the centralized IVR.
Answer: B
4. You have received a trouble ticket stating that an executive with an account at a bank cannot retrieve account information by phone. When the executive calls the bank, the call is answered and the executive is prompted to enter the account code. However, the bank does not seem to recognize the DTMF tones and disconnects the call.What is a possible solution to this problem?
Select the best response.
A. Configure the voice rtp send-recv command in the gateway.
B. Set the Cisco Unified CallManager service parameter ToSendH225UserInfoMsg to True.
C. Configure the progress_ind setup enable 3 command under the gateway VoIP dial peer.
D. Configure the progress_ind alert enable 8 command under the gateway POTS dial peer.
Answer: A
5. Partition A contains four route patterns. The calling search space assigned to Device B contains only Partition A. When Device B dials 1136, which of the route patterns will be selected?
Select the best response.
A. 1[14]XX
B. 11X!
C. 1[^2-8]XX
D. 1[1-4]XX
Answer: B

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6. You have received a trouble ticket that says users are experiencing echo when their calls go out an H.323 gateway. You have tested the gateway and have modified the configuration so that the ERL level is now 6 dB. You also increased the echo-cancel coverage value to 64 ms.
How will this impact voice quality after this change?
Select the best response.
A. The increase in echo-cancel coverage will have no effect on voice quality.
B. The ends of sentences will be chopped by the echo canceller.
C. Consonants will be chopped by the echo canceller.
D. The echo canceller will take 2-3 seconds longer to converge at the beginning of the call.
Answer: D
7. Your company has recently installed a Cisco Unified CallManager cluster and a Cisco Unity voice mail platform. You have received complaints from users that the red MWI light never comes on, even when there are new voice-mail messages in the voice mailboxes. Which two steps must be taken to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Verify, using the Port Usage tool, that the ports dedicated to MWI on/off are not over-utilized. Add another dedicated port if the current port is over-utilized.
B. Verify that the MWI on/off numbers are unique within the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster dial plan. If they are not, change the MWI on/off numbers in the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster so they are unique and configure the Cisco Unity server so they match.
C. Ensure that the number of ports licensed for the Cisco Unity server is greater than or equal to the number of configured ports.
D. Verify that the calls are being sent to the correct ports on the Cisco Unity server. If they are being sent to the incorrect ones by the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster, correct the values in the cluster.
E. Verify that the same numbers are being used for MWI on/off in both the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster and Cisco Unity server. If they are different, change the Cisco Unity server to match the Cisco Unified CallManager cluster.
Answer: BE
8. A company has migrated to a Cisco Unified CallManager IP Telephony system and is now replacing the existing voice-mail system with a Cisco Unity voice-mail system. A small group of users has been established to test the new voice mail system. The users were able to initialize their mailboxes and record greetings; however, during testing the callers were sometimes unable to leave voice-mail messages for Cisco Unity users.
Which two issues could cause this problem? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. There is a mismatch in the number of ports configured in Cisco Unified CallManager and Cisco Unity.
B. There is a mismatch in the MWI on/off numbers configured in Cisco Unified CallManager and Cisco Unity.
C. The call transfer call handlers are not configured correctly.
D. Cisco Unity is in a G.729 region and has not been configured to support G.729.
E. The hunt group is hunting to Cisco Unity ports that have been dedicated for message notification.
Answer: AE
9. Which Cisco Unity troubleshooting tool would be used to diagnose problems with skinny and MWI messages?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Unity Performance Information and Diagnostics
B. Unity Diagnostic Tool
C. Integration Monitor
D. SysCheck
Answer: B
10. The following is a partial configuration of an access layer switch:mls qos map cos-dscp 0 8 12 16 28 32 40 48mls qos!
Voice bearer traffic will be set to use which per-hop behavior?
Select the best response.
A. EF
B. CS4
C. AF32
D. AF12
E. BE
Answer: B

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1. While examining the output of a show run command on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series, you notice that the statement interface GigabitEthernet2/1.2 appears in the output. What does this mean?
Select the best response.
A. It refers to the second FCIP tunnel that is configured on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
B. It refers to a VLAN subinterface on port GigabitEthernet2/1.
C. It means that port GigabitEthernet2/1 is assigned to VSAN 2.
D. It is a mistake in the interface configuration.
Answer: B
2. The HBA on your storage server only supports the NL_Port mode. Which interface type on the Cisco MDS 9000 Series fabric switches can support this HBA?
Select the best response.
A. F
B. TE
C. FL
D. N
E. E
Answer: C
3. For purposes of granting restricted access to statically configure iSCSI virtual targets, which three of these can be used to identify iSCSI initiators? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. iSCSI node name
B. host name
C. IPv4 address and subnet
D. MAC address
E. IPv6 address
F. iSCSI WWN
Answer: ACE
4. What is a benefit of enhanced zoning?
Select the best response.
A. fabric locked during configuration changes
B. larger zoning database size
C. database rollback in case of failure
D. zones allowed to span VSANs
Answer: A
5. How many ports are addressable on a fabric arbitrated loop?
Select the best response.
A. 126
B. 127
C. 255
D. 256
Answer: B
6. Which three of the following are possible reasons why a line card module does not come online? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. Port indexes have been taken offline.
B. Available port indexes are noncontiguous.
C. Not enough power is available in the chassis.
D. An invalid interoperability mode has been configured.
E. Unsupported SFPs have been installed.
F. Not enough port indexes are available.
Answer: BCF
7. Which of the following tools would you use to view SCSI error count statistics?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Performance Manager
B. RMON
C. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Answer: C

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8. Why would you use the fcanalyzer command?
Select the best response.
A. to ensure that Fibre Channel configuration settings are synchronized across all switches in the fabric
B. to identify common configuration errors in the fabric
C. to nondisruptively capture and decode Fibre Channel control frames
D. to decode and analyze Fibre Channel frames and ordered sets on a link
Answer: C
9. Which two features help you verify connectivity between host and storage devices? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. fcanalyzer
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer
C. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
D. Zone Merge Analysis
E. fcping
Answer: CE
10. Which feature detects hardware faults and attempts recovery actions?
Select the best response.
A. Switch Health Analysis
B. Fabric Configuration Analysis
C. Online Health Management System
D. End-to-End Connectivity Analysis
E. Cisco Fabric Services
Answer: C
11. A customer has reported performance degradation in the SAN. The system administrator would like to track read-write I/O and LUN use on several devices. The devices are directly connected to various switches and belong to different VSANs. The administrator wants to gather information for the last 72 hours.
Which of the following Cisco MDS 9000 Series tools is needed to track SCSI I/O and LUN statistics?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco Fabric Manager
B. Cisco Traffic Analyzer and PAA
C. Cisco Performance Manager
D. Cisco Fabric Analyzer
Answer: B
12. Which services are supported by a Cisco NX-OS AAA configuration?
Select the best response.
A. Telnet, SSH, FM and DM logins
B. Console login, FC-SP authentication, FTP
C. FC-SP authentication, FM and DM logins, TFTP
D. iSCSI authentication, FTP, FC-SP authentication
Answer: A
13. Which two Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switches are used in small- and medium-sized SAN topologies? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Cisco MDS 9124
B. Cisco MDS 9222i
C. Cisco MDS 9506
D. Cisco MDS 9509
E. Cisco MDS 9513
Answer: AB
14. Which second-generation Fibre Channel module offers a full 4Gb/s line rate on all ports?
Select the best response.
A. 12-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
B. 24-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
C. 24-port 1/2/4/8 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
D. 48-port 1/2/4 Gb/s Fibre Channel module
Answer: A
15. Which Cisco MDS 9000 Series Switch has non-field-replaceable fans?
Select the best response.
A. Cisco MDS 9124
B. Cisco MDS 9134
C. Cisco MDS 9222i
D. Cisco MDS 9506
Answer: A

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642-357,one of the most important cisco exams updated by Test4actual,will help you pass this exam,and it’s very useful for your career.

1. Which three Fibre Channel switch features are unique to Cisco’s MDS 9000 Series switches? (Choose three.)
Select 3 response(s).
A. LUN Zoning
B. Read-Only Zones
C. Internet-Switch Link
D. Fibre Channel Congestion Control
E. FC Link Aggregation
F. FSPF
Answer: ABD
2. Which Cisco MDS 9500 Series feature addresses the customer requirement for five nines (99.999-percent) availability?
Select the best response.
A. active and standby FC line cards
B. virtual output queuing (VOQ)
C. SSM card is installed in the switch
D. nondisruptive software upgrades
E. redundant fan cards
Answer: D
3. Which statement is true concerning the Cisco MDS switch when operating in native interop mode?
Select the best response.
A. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that are certified by SNIA.
B. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that support “MDS Native” mode.
C. The MDS switch can interoperate with Non-MDS switches that properly adhere to Fibre Channel switch standards.
D. The MDS switch cannot interoperate with Non-MDS switches.
Answer: C
4. Which are two characteristics of the Cisco MDS Series fan modules? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. Supervisor modules shut down the fan modules when the air temperature is below a preset threshold.
B. If the Fan Status LED turns red, a fan has failed and the module must be replaced.
C. Fan modules monitor air temperature and shut down if the temperature exceeds a preset threshold.
D. Fan modules do not require the switch to be powered off in order to be replaced.
Answer: BD
5. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for FCIP connectivity to remote sites. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the FCIP interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C

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6. What are two ways of preventing unauthorized hosts from connecting to the management interface of a Cisco MDS 9000 Family switch? (Choose two.)
Select 2 response(s).
A. use SNMPv3 only
B. configure IP ACLs
C. configure management VSANs
D. use digital certificates
E. implement RBAC
Answer: BD
7. Your customer has implemented an IPS-8 for iSCSI connectivity to workgroup servers. How can this customer prevent unauthorized hosts from connecting to the Cisco MDS 9000 fabric through the iSCSI interfaces?
Select the best response.
A. Configure RADIUS authentication
B. Configure IPSec encryption on the IPS-8
C. Configure IP ACLs on the IPS-8
D. Configure fabric binding on the IPS-8
Answer: C
8. What is the principal cost advantage of a collapsed core SAN design compared to a core-edge design if each connects the same number of host and storage ports?
Select the best response.
A. fewer hops for a given exchange
B. fewer long-wave SFPs
C. fewer ISL connections
D. fewer domains on the domain list
E. fewer director-class switches
Answer: C
9. What is the best mechanism to use to isolate backup traffic from other mission-critical traffic?
Select the best response.
A. VSANs
B. zones
C. QoS
D. IVR
Answer: A
10. Which of these provides fabric-based virtualization for multiple independent software vendors?
Select the best response.
A. Storage Services Module (SSM)
B. Cisco MDS 9000 32-port 1/2-Gbps Fibre Channel module
C. Multiprotocol Services module
D. Cisco MDS 9513 Supervisor 2
Answer: A

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Product Description
Exam Number/Code: 642-062
Exam Name: Routing and Switching Solutions for System Engineers
Questions and Answers:59Q&A
Update Time:2009-11-5
Price:$129.00
Exam Details
The exam is the qualifying exam available to candidates pursuing a single-exam option for the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification. The (642-062) exam will test materials from the new Interconnection Cisco Network Devices (ICND) course as well as the new Introduction to Cisco Networking Technologies (INTRO) course. The exam will certify that the successful candidate has important knowledge and skills necessary to select, connect, configure, and troubleshoot the various Cisco networking devices. The exam covers topics on Extending Switched Networks with VLANS, Determining IP Routes, Managing IP traffic with Access Lists, Establishing Point-to-Point connections, and Establishing Frame Relay Connections.

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1. Your company has a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain named contoso.com that uses Active Directory–integrated DNS.
You deploy the Key Management Service (KMS) on a Windows 7 computer.
You need to ensure that Windows 7 client computers can locate the KMS host and perform activation.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Deploy a Windows Server 2008 KMS host.
B. Grant the KMS server the Full Control permission on the _vlmcs._tcp.contoso.com DNS record.
C. Grant the KMS server the Full Control permission on the _msdcs._tcp.contoso.com DNS zone.
D. Create and deploy a GPO firewall rule to allow RPC traffic through TCP port 1688 on the client computers.
Answer: BD
2. Your network consists of 1,000 client computers that run Windows XP. The computers do not have access to the Internet.
You plan to migrate 200 of the computers immediately to Windows 7. The remainder will be migrated over the next several months.
You need to plan the most efficient method for activating all of the computers.
What should you do?
A. Use the Key Management Service (KMS) for all the computers.
B. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for all the computers.
C. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the first 200 computers, and then use the Key Management Service (KMS) for the remaining computers.
D. Use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Independent for the first 200 computers, and then use Multiple Activation Key (MAK) Proxy for the remaining computers.
Answer: A
3. Your company’s network has client computers that run Windows 7.
When a user attempts to log on to the domain from a computer named Client1, she receives the following message:
The system cannot log you on to this domain because the system’s computer account in its primary domain is missing or the password on that account is incorrect.You need to ensure that the user can log on to the domain from Client1.
What should you do?
A. Disjoin and rejoin Client1 to the domain.
B. Add the computer account for Client1 to the Domain Computers Active Directory group.
C. Reset the account password for Client1 through Active Directory Users and Computers.
D. Reset the account password for the user through Active Directory Users and Computers.
Answer: A
4. The client computers in your network run either Windows XP or Windows 7. All client computers are in a single Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) organizational unit (OU) named MyClients.
You install Windows Software Update Services (WSUS). You create a Group Policy object (GPO) that enables automatic updates from the WSUS server, and you link the GPO to the MyClients OU. You place all client computers in a targeting group named MyClients.
Testing reveals that a security update that is applicable to both Windows XP and Windows 7 causes a line-of-business application to fail on the Windows XP client computers.
You need to ensure that the application runs on the Windows XP client computers and that the Windows 7 client computers receive the security update.
What should you do?
A. Remove the Windows 7 client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the All Computers targeting group.
B. Remove the Windows XP client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the All Computers targeting group.
C. Remove the Windows 7 client computers from the MyClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the Unassigned Computers targeting group.
D. Create a targeting group named MyXPClients beneath the MyClients targeting group. Move the Windows XP client computers to the MyXpClients targeting group. Approve the update for installation to the MyClients targeting group.
Answer: C
5. Your company uses Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) to deploy software updates and service packs.
Microsoft releases a security update for Windows 7.
You have the following requirements:
•The security update must be deployed by 5:00 P.M. on Friday.
•Computers that are off when the security update is deployed must install the security update as soon as they are turned on.
You need to manage the software update process to meet the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Approve the security update for installation through the WSUS console with a deadline of Friday at 5:00 P.M.
B. Approve the security update for installation through the WSUS console with no deadline.
C. Approve the security update for download through the WSUS console with a deadline of Friday at 5:00 P.M.
D. Approve the security update for download through the WSUS console with no deadline.
Answer: A

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6. Your company has client computers that run Windows Vista and client computers that run Windows 7. The client computers connect directly to the Microsoft Update Web site once per week and automatically install all available security updates.Microsoft releases a security update for Windows 7.
You have the following requirements:
•Create a report of all Windows 7 computers that are currently connected to the network and that do not have the security update installed.
•Use the least amount of administrative effort.
You need to manage the software update process to meet the requirements.
What should you do?
A. Deploy Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). Approve the security update for installation, and force a detection cycle on the client computers.
B. Deploy Microsoft Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). Approve the security update for detection, and force a detection cycle on the client computers.
C. Use the Microsoft Baseline Security Analyzer (MBSA) to scan the client computers. Configure MBSA to use the Microsoft Update site catalog.
D. Use the Microsoft Baseline Configuration Analyzer (MBCA) to scan the client computers.
Answer: C
7. Your network has a single domain with 1,000 client computers that run Windows Vista. All client computers are members of the domain.You are planning to deploy Windows 7.
You need to create a report that shows hardware and device compatibility on all client computers. You need to perform this action without installing any additional software on the client computers.
Which tool should you use?
A. System Center Capacity Planner
B. System Center Configuration Manager
C. Microsoft Assessment and Planning Toolkit
D. Windows Performance Monitor Data Collector Sets
Answer: C
8. Your company has client computers that run Windows 7 Enterprise.
You need to provide 10 users with an additional operating system boot option.
What should you do?
A. Use Bootcfg to modify the boot parameters.
B. Use the DiskPart tool in Windows?PE to attach a Virtual Hard Drive (VHD).
C. Use BCDedit to add a native-boot Virtual Hard Drive (VHD) entry to the boot menu.
D. Use BCDboot to modify the system partition.
Answer: C
9. You are designing a Windows 7 virtual desktop infrastructure.
You have the following requirements:
•Provide access to Remote Desktop Services RemoteApp sources from multiple remote desktop servers.
•Support network load balancing.
•Support reconnection to existing sessions on virtual desktops.
You need to specify a design that meets the requirements.
What should you include in your design?
A. Remote Desktop Gateway
B. Remote Desktop Connection Broker
C. Windows Deployment Services
D. Windows Virtual PC and Windows XP Mode
Answer: B
10. Your company has 1,000 client computers that run Windows 7. The company uses several custom line-of-business applications that are not compatible with Windows 7.
You need to distribute a Microsoft Enterprise Desktop Virtualization (MED-V) v2 virtual machine (VM) image that includes the custom applications to all Windows 7 client computers.
What should you do?
A. Deploy the VM image from the MED-V server.
B. Mount the VM image from the MED-V workspace.
C. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Deployment Services (WDS).
D. Deploy the VM image by using Windows Server Update Services (WSUS).
Answer: A

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